converting ºC to ºF or ºF to ºC

Adam Fikso
Tue, 10 Feb 2009 11:18:44 PST
Hello David. Maybe I see.  Yes, -40 is the same temperature in both scales. 
But I think that I don't see it.  Some aspects of simple math have always 
eluded me.

Any relation to an Erlich who would be about 86-87 right now who went to the 
U of C Berkeley and was friends with Townsend Conover and Drs. Lanny (Ann) & 
and Pete Wilkins?

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "David Ehrlich" <>
To: "Pacific Bulb Society" <>
Sent: Tuesday, February 10, 2009 1:05 PM
Subject: Re: [pbs] converting ºC to ºF or ºF to ºC

Well Adam, yes and no. Do the arithmetic yourself; you'll find that your 
adding or subtracting 32 before or after multiplying or dividing by 
nine-fifths is much more difficult to remember and yet gives the same result 
as my easy-to-remember symmetric formula. My formula is based on a 
mathematic result, namely that when a domain is mapped into itself 1-to-1, 
there will be a fixed point. In the case of Franenheit and Celsius, that 
point is -40°.

From: Adam Fikso <>
To: Pacific Bulb Society <>
Sent: Monday, February 9, 2009 2:36:18 PM
Subject: Re: [pbs] converting ºC to ºF or ºF to ºC

° David? Isn't the conversion formula supposed to be 5/9ths or 9/5ths +
or - 32--not 40.? That's what I remember from Berkeley High School, and U
of C.

A little trick I learned in Hight School:
Add 40º
multiply by 5/9 or 9/5, depending upon which way you want to go
Subtract 40º

This rule is far easier to remember than any other.
pbs mailing list 

More information about the pbs mailing list